Bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn Sinh học lớp 10 năm 2021 – 2022

Final exam questions for the 2nd grade 10 Biology in 2021 – 2022 Includes 3 test questions compiled in the form of multiple choice. Thereby helping students quickly familiarize themselves with the exam structure, review to achieve high results in the upcoming 10th grade 2nd semester exam.

Biology 10th Semester Exam Questions It is also a reference for teachers to give test questions to their students. Besides, you can refer to some exam questions such as: 2nd semester exam questions in Physics 10, matrix exam questions for 2nd semester 10th grade, 2nd semester exam questions in History 10.

Exam questions for the second semester of Biology 10 years 2021 – 2022

DEPARTMENT of Education and Training……..

HIGH SCHOOL ………..

Test day:

(The test has 4 pages, 40 multiple choice questions)

QUALITY SURVEY FOR SECOND TERM

SCHOOL YEAR 2021-2022

Subject: BIOLOGY 10

Exam time: 50 minutes.

Verse 81: Regulating gene activity is:

A. regulate the amount of gene product produced

B. regulation of DNA replication

C. regulate the activity of the translation process

D. regulation of cell division

Verse 82: Chemical 5BU (5-Bromuraxin) when penetrated into cells causes mutations to replace the AT pair into a GX pair. The replacement process in turn according to the diagram:

A. AT → T-5BU → X-5BU → GX

B. AT → X-5BU → G-5BU → GX

C. AT → G-5BU → X-5BU → GX

D. AT → A-5BU → G-5BU → GX

Verse 83: In the gene regulation mechanism of the Lac operon, which of the following events takes place only when there is no lactose in the environment?

A. A repressor protein that binds to the operator region prevents transcription of structural genes

B. Some lactose molecules bind to the repressor protein, changing its three-dimensional configuration

C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to conduct transcription

D. The mRNA molecules of the structural genes Z, Y, and A are translated to create enzymes that break down lactose.

Verse 84Types of point mutations include:

A. Loss of DNA

B. Losing or adding a few nucleotide pairs

C. Substitute a few nucleotide pairs

D. Loss or addition or replacement of a nucleotide pair

Question 85: Each daughter DNA after replication has one strand of the parent DNA, the other strand is formed from free nucleotides. This is the basis of the principle:

A. Sale of insurance

B. Supplementation and preservation

C. Supplement

D. NTBS, semi-insured

Verse 86: In what way are the monomers of a DNA molecule different from the monomers of RNA?

A. Baseline, Acid H3PO4 and Sugar

B. Baseline, Acid H3PO4

C. Basaltite, Sugar

D. Sugar, Acid H3PO4

Verse 87: Gen B has a length of 0.51µm and an A/G ratio = 3/7. The mutated gene B produces the b allele, which has the same size and has 4051 hydrogen bonds. When a cell with genotype Bb enters mitosis, in metaphase, the total number of nucleotides of each type in the B and b genes is:

A. G = X = 2010; A = T = 900

B. G = X = 4202; A = T = 1798

C. G = X = 2101; A = T = 999

D. G = X = 1798; A = T = 4202

Verse 88: Which of the following statements is not true?

A. There are 61 amino acid-coding triplets

B. The only eukaryotic opening trio is AUG

C. The genetic code is degenerate

D. The genetic code is universal

Verse 89: What is not true about genetic mutations:

A. Genetic mutations have the ability to pass on to the next generation

B. Genetic mutations are expressed as phenotypes when they arise

C. When a gene mutation has arisen, it will be reproduced through the self-replicating mechanism of DNA

D. Point mutations are gene mutations

Verse 90The structural features of RNA that are different from DNA are:

A. Has a single-circuit structure

B. There are hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides

C. Composed of many monomers

D. Macromolecule, having a polymolecular structure

Verse 91: The function of DNA is:

A. Provides energy for cell activities

B. Is a structural component of cell membranes

C. Storage, preservation and communication of genetic information

D. Directly to cytoplasm for protein synthesis

Verse 92: The nature of the DNA-RNA-protein relationship is:

A. Ribonucleotide sequence, sequence of nucleotides, sequence of amino acids

B. The sequence of nucleotides complements the sequence of ribonucleotides, the sequence of amino acids

C. Sequence of nucleotide pairs on DNA Sequence of ribonucleotides on mRNA Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain

D. Sequence of codon triples sequence of base triplet sequence of amino acids

Verse 93: During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are joined together to form a continuous chain by a splicing enzyme:

A. DNA giraza

B. DNA polymerase

C. helicase

D. DNA ligase

Verse 94: What is mature mRNA?

A. mRNA has just been synthesized

B. mRNA has removed all the Intron . segments

C. RNA participates in the translation process

D. The mRNA molecule has grown to its full size

Question 95: A gene has a mass of 540000 units and has 2320 hydrogen bonds. The number of each type of nucleotide in the gene is equal to:

A. A = T = 520, G = X = 380

B. A = T = 380, G = X = 520

C. A = T = 540, G = X = 360

D. A = T = 360, G = X = 540

Verse 96: A mature sex cell of a species (2n = 46) undergoes normal meiosis. The number of chromosomes and the state of the chromosomes in prophase I are:

A. 46 double chromosomes

B. 92 double chromosomes

C. 46 single chromosomes

D. 92 single chromosomes

Verse 97The function of regulatory genes is:

A. always inhibits the protein synthesis control process of structural genes

B. generate signal to signal the end of structural gene’s protein synthesis control process

C. control the activity of structural genes through the products produced by the regulatory gene itself

D. stimulates the activity of controlling protein synthesis of structural genes

Verse 98: A T-type nucleotide is a monomer that makes up which of the following molecules?

A. Proteins

B. DNA

C. rRNA

D. mRNA

Verse 99: A structural gene with a length of 2550 A0 and 1950 H-linked. A mutation that does not change the gene length, the mutant gene has an A/G ratio of approximately 66.3%. What type of gene mutation?

A. Lost 1 pair of GX

B. Replace 1 pair of GX with 1 pair of AT

C. Add 1 pair of AT

D. Replace 1 pair of AT with 1 pair of GX

Question 100: In eukaryotes, which of the following does not occur in the nucleus of a cell?

A. Duplication of chromosomes

B. Synthesis of polypeptide chains

C. DNA replication

D. RNA synthesis

Verse 101: Give the following information:

(1) The transcribed mRNA is directly used as a template for protein synthesis

(2) When the ribosome comes into contact with the terminator on the mRNA, translation is complete

(3) Thanks to a specific enzyme, the starting amino acid is cut from the newly synthesized polypeptide chain

(4) The post-transcribed mRNA is removed introns, joining the esons together to form a mature mRNA

The correct transcription and translation information for both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is:

A. (1) and (4)

B. (2) and (3)

C. (2) and (4)

D. (3) and (4)

Question 102: Translating the code is:

A. Protein synthesis

B. The process of chromosome duplication

C. DNA replication process

D. The process of synthesizing mRNA

Question 103The role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in DNA replication is:

A. Breaking the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA

B. Untwist the DNA molecule

C. Connect the Okazaki fragments together

D. Assemble NTBS free nucleotides with each template strand of DNA

Verse 104: Deficient microorganisms are:

A. Microorganisms can synthesize growth factors on their own

B. Microorganisms cannot synthesize growth factors on their own

C. Microorganism that inhibits the activity of other microorganisms

D. Harmful microorganisms

Question 105: In the intermittent culture medium, the growth rate of bacteria is fastest in which phase?

A. Equilibrium phase

B. Latent phase

C. Decline phase

D. Power phase

Verse 106: When talking about microorganisms, how many of the following statements are true?

1. Microorganisms are tiny organisms that can only be seen under a microscope

2. Most microorganisms are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, some are unicellular aggregates

3. Microorganisms include many different taxonomic groups

4. Microorganisms absorb and metabolize nutrients quickly, grow and reproduce very quickly, and are widely distributed

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

Question 107: If a primitive male sex cell of an organism (with a diploid 2n set of chromosomes) mits x times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:

A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x. The cell medium that provides the number of chromosomes for the reproductive region is 2x.

(2x – 1).2n chromosomes

B. The number of gametophytes produced is 2x. 2n, each gamete has n . chromosomes

C. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x, the number of gametes produced is equal to the number of gametophyte cells

D. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2nx, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 2n chromosomes.

Verse 108: Virus particles usually have the following structural forms:

A. Double, block and mixed helix

B. Straight, bare and block

C. Straight, block and mixed

D. Twists, blocks and mixes

Question 109: Give the following observations:

1. Mitosis occurs in the zygote

2. Mitosis occurs in primitive sex cells

3. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells

4. Mitosis is a form of cell division in eukaryotes

5. Mitosis occurs in mature sex cells

6. Mitosis consists of 2 consecutive cell divisions

The correct statements about mitosis include:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 3, 5

C. 2, 3, 4, 6

D. 3, 4, 5, 6

Question 110: In Rice 2n = 24. A vegetative cell of rice mitosis 5 times consecutively. In meiosis 5, in all daughter cells there are:

A. 640 chromateite

B. 320 chromatite

C. 384 double chromosomes

D. 320 double chromosomes

Question 111: Measures to prevent HIV include:

A. Just live faithfully monogamous

B. Use of effective vaccines

C. Practicing healthy lifestyle, medical hygiene, eliminating social evils

D. Do not inject drugs

Verse 112: If a primordial male sex cell of a chicken (with diploid 2n = 78) mits normally 3 times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate. normal meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:

A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 8 cells, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 78 chromosomes.

B. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 16 gametes carrying X chromosomes and 16 gametes carrying Y chromosomes.

C. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 32 gametes carrying the X chromosome.

D. The number of gametophytes produced is 23.2n, each gamete has 39 . chromosomes

Verse 113: A gene in eukaryotes has 200 A-type nucleotides and 400 G-type nucleotides. The total number of hydrogen bonds in the gene is

A. 1400

B. 1600

C. 1200

D. 600

Verse 114: The meaning of meiosis is:

A. Formation of gametes with n chromosomes, which form the basis for fertilization.

B. Decrease in the number of chromosomes in the cell.

C. Creates many haploid cells for the body.

D. Helps the body create new generations.

Verse 115: Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. In eukaryotes, the amino acid that starts the polypeptide chain is methionine

B. The structural units of DNA are A, T, G, X.

C. The direction of displacement of the ribosome on the mRNA is 5/ → 3/

D. In prokaryotes, after transcription the mRNA molecule is cut off the intron

Verse 116: Many different triplets can code for the same amino acid, which property of the genetic code?

A. Popularity

B. Continuity

C. Degeneracy

D. Specificity

Verse 117: A gene has a length of 5100Å, has A = 20%, strand 2 of the gene has a number of nucleotides of type A = 345 Nucleotites. If strand 1 is the parent strand and the gene is transcribed 5 times, the number of uraxin(U)-type nucleotides provided by the intracellular environment for transcription is :

A. U=1380

B. U=1200

C. U=1275

D. U=1380

Verse 118: Modeling the coding process is the job of:

A. encoder circuit

B. tRNA

C. original code circuit

D. mRNA

Verse 119: A gene has 120 helices and 3,100 hydrogen bonds. This gene duplicates itself three times to form daughter genes. The number of each type of environment provided for the above process is:

A. A = T = 3500; G = X = 4900

B. A = T = 1500; G = X = 2100

C. A = T = 500; G = X = 700

D. A = T = 1000; G = X = 1400

Question 120: The molecule has a single-stranded structure and has 3 circular lobes, one lobe has a triad of enantiomers:

A. DNA

B. rRNA

C. mRNA

D. tRNA

……….

Please download the document file to see more exam questions for Semester 2 Biology 10

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Final exam questions for the 2nd grade 10 Biology in 2021 – 2022 Includes 3 test questions compiled in the form of multiple choice. Thereby helping students quickly familiarize themselves with the exam structure, review to achieve high results in the upcoming 10th grade 2nd semester exam.
Biology 10th Semester Exam Questions It is also a reference for teachers to give test questions to their students. Besides, you can refer to some exam questions such as: 2nd semester exam questions in Physics 10, matrix exam questions for 2nd semester 10th grade, 2nd semester exam questions in History 10.
Exam questions for the second semester of Biology 10 years 2021 – 2022

DEPARTMENT of Education and Training……..
HIGH SCHOOL ………..

Test day:
(The test has 4 pages, 40 multiple choice questions)

QUALITY SURVEY FOR SECOND TERM
SCHOOL YEAR 2021-2022
Subject: BIOLOGY 10
Exam time: 50 minutes.

Verse 81: Regulating gene activity is:
A. regulate the amount of gene product produced
B. regulation of DNA replication
C. regulate the activity of the translation process
D. regulation of cell division
Verse 82: Chemical 5BU (5-Bromuraxin) when penetrated into cells causes mutations to replace the AT pair into a GX pair. The replacement process in turn according to the diagram:
A. AT → T-5BU → X-5BU → GX
B. AT → X-5BU → G-5BU → GX
C. AT → G-5BU → X-5BU → GX
D. AT → A-5BU → G-5BU → GX
Verse 83: In the gene regulation mechanism of the Lac operon, which of the following events takes place only when there is no lactose in the environment?
A. A repressor protein that binds to the operator region prevents transcription of structural genes
B. Some lactose molecules bind to the repressor protein, changing its three-dimensional configuration
C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to conduct transcription
D. The mRNA molecules of the structural genes Z, Y, and A are translated to create enzymes that break down lactose.
Verse 84Types of point mutations include:
A. Loss of DNA
B. Losing or adding a few nucleotide pairs
C. Substitute a few nucleotide pairs
D. Loss or addition or replacement of a nucleotide pair
Question 85: Each daughter DNA after replication has one strand of the parent DNA, the other strand is formed from free nucleotides. This is the basis of the principle:
A. Sale of insurance
B. Supplementation and preservation
C. Supplement
D. NTBS, semi-insured
Verse 86: In what way are the monomers of a DNA molecule different from the monomers of RNA?
A. Baseline, Acid H3PO4 and Sugar
B. Baseline, Acid H3PO4
C. Basaltite, Sugar
D. Sugar, Acid H3PO4
Verse 87: Gen B has a length of 0.51µm and an A/G ratio = 3/7. The mutated gene B produces the b allele, which has the same size and has 4051 hydrogen bonds. When a cell with genotype Bb enters mitosis, in metaphase, the total number of nucleotides of each type in the B and b genes is:
A. G = X = 2010; A = T = 900
B. G = X = 4202; A = T = 1798
C. G = X = 2101; A = T = 999
D. G = X = 1798; A = T = 4202
Verse 88: Which of the following statements is not true?
A. There are 61 amino acid-coding triplets
B. The only eukaryotic opening trio is AUG
C. The genetic code is degenerate
D. The genetic code is universal
Verse 89: What is not true about genetic mutations:
A. Genetic mutations have the ability to pass on to the next generation
B. Genetic mutations are expressed as phenotypes when they arise
C. When a gene mutation has arisen, it will be reproduced through the self-replicating mechanism of DNA
D. Point mutations are gene mutations
Verse 90The structural features of RNA that are different from DNA are:
A. Has a single-circuit structure
B. There are hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides
C. Composed of many monomers
D. Macromolecule, having a polymolecular structure
Verse 91: The function of DNA is:
A. Provides energy for cell activities
B. Is a structural component of cell membranes
C. Storage, preservation and communication of genetic information
D. Directly to cytoplasm for protein synthesis
Verse 92: The nature of the DNA-RNA-protein relationship is:
A. Ribonucleotide sequence, sequence of nucleotides, sequence of amino acids
B. The sequence of nucleotides complements the sequence of ribonucleotides, the sequence of amino acids
C. Sequence of nucleotide pairs on DNA Sequence of ribonucleotides on mRNA Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
D. Sequence of codon triples sequence of base triplet sequence of amino acids
Verse 93: During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are joined together to form a continuous chain by a splicing enzyme:
A. DNA giraza
B. DNA polymerase
C. helicase
D. DNA ligase
Verse 94: What is mature mRNA?
A. mRNA has just been synthesized
B. mRNA has removed all the Intron . segments
C. RNA participates in the translation process
D. The mRNA molecule has grown to its full size
Question 95: A gene has a mass of 540000 units and has 2320 hydrogen bonds. The number of each type of nucleotide in the gene is equal to:
A. A = T = 520, G = X = 380
B. A = T = 380, G = X = 520
C. A = T = 540, G = X = 360
D. A = T = 360, G = X = 540
Verse 96: A mature sex cell of a species (2n = 46) undergoes normal meiosis. The number of chromosomes and the state of the chromosomes in prophase I are:
A. 46 double chromosomes
B. 92 double chromosomes
C. 46 single chromosomes
D. 92 single chromosomes
Verse 97The function of regulatory genes is:
A. always inhibits the protein synthesis control process of structural genes
B. generate signal to signal the end of structural gene’s protein synthesis control process
C. control the activity of structural genes through the products produced by the regulatory gene itself
D. stimulates the activity of controlling protein synthesis of structural genes
Verse 98: A T-type nucleotide is a monomer that makes up which of the following molecules?
A. Proteins
B. DNA
C. rRNA
D. mRNA
Verse 99: A structural gene with a length of 2550 A0 and 1950 H-linked. A mutation that does not change the gene length, the mutant gene has an A/G ratio of approximately 66.3%. What type of gene mutation?
A. Lost 1 pair of GX
B. Replace 1 pair of GX with 1 pair of AT
C. Add 1 pair of AT
D. Replace 1 pair of AT with 1 pair of GX
Question 100: In eukaryotes, which of the following does not occur in the nucleus of a cell?
A. Duplication of chromosomes
B. Synthesis of polypeptide chains
C. DNA replication
D. RNA synthesis
Verse 101: Give the following information:
(1) The transcribed mRNA is directly used as a template for protein synthesis
(2) When the ribosome comes into contact with the terminator on the mRNA, translation is complete
(3) Thanks to a specific enzyme, the starting amino acid is cut from the newly synthesized polypeptide chain
(4) The post-transcribed mRNA is removed introns, joining the esons together to form a mature mRNA
The correct transcription and translation information for both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is:
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (3) and (4)
Question 102: Translating the code is:
A. Protein synthesis
B. The process of chromosome duplication
C. DNA replication process
D. The process of synthesizing mRNA
Question 103The role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in DNA replication is:
A. Breaking the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA
B. Untwist the DNA molecule
C. Connect the Okazaki fragments together
D. Assemble NTBS free nucleotides with each template strand of DNA
Verse 104: Deficient microorganisms are:
A. Microorganisms can synthesize growth factors on their own
B. Microorganisms cannot synthesize growth factors on their own
C. Microorganism that inhibits the activity of other microorganisms
D. Harmful microorganisms
Question 105: In the intermittent culture medium, the growth rate of bacteria is fastest in which phase?
A. Equilibrium phase
B. Latent phase
C. Decline phase
D. Power phase
Verse 106: When talking about microorganisms, how many of the following statements are true?
1. Microorganisms are tiny organisms that can only be seen under a microscope
2. Most microorganisms are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, some are unicellular aggregates
3. Microorganisms include many different taxonomic groups
4. Microorganisms absorb and metabolize nutrients quickly, grow and reproduce very quickly, and are widely distributed
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Question 107: If a primitive male sex cell of an organism (with a diploid 2n set of chromosomes) mits x times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x. The cell medium that provides the number of chromosomes for the reproductive region is 2x.
(2x – 1).2n chromosomes
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 2x. 2n, each gamete has n . chromosomes
C. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x, the number of gametes produced is equal to the number of gametophyte cells
D. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2nx, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 2n chromosomes.
Verse 108: Virus particles usually have the following structural forms:
A. Double, block and mixed helix
B. Straight, bare and block
C. Straight, block and mixed
D. Twists, blocks and mixes
Question 109: Give the following observations:
1. Mitosis occurs in the zygote
2. Mitosis occurs in primitive sex cells
3. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells
4. Mitosis is a form of cell division in eukaryotes
5. Mitosis occurs in mature sex cells
6. Mitosis consists of 2 consecutive cell divisions
The correct statements about mitosis include:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 3, 4, 5, 6
Question 110: In Rice 2n = 24. A vegetative cell of rice mitosis 5 times consecutively. In meiosis 5, in all daughter cells there are:
A. 640 chromateite
B. 320 chromatite
C. 384 double chromosomes
D. 320 double chromosomes
Question 111: Measures to prevent HIV include:
A. Just live faithfully monogamous
B. Use of effective vaccines
C. Practicing healthy lifestyle, medical hygiene, eliminating social evils
D. Do not inject drugs
Verse 112: If a primordial male sex cell of a chicken (with diploid 2n = 78) mits normally 3 times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate. normal meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 8 cells, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 78 chromosomes.
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 16 gametes carrying X chromosomes and 16 gametes carrying Y chromosomes.
C. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 32 gametes carrying the X chromosome.
D. The number of gametophytes produced is 23.2n, each gamete has 39 . chromosomes
Verse 113: A gene in eukaryotes has 200 A-type nucleotides and 400 G-type nucleotides. The total number of hydrogen bonds in the gene is
A. 1400
B. 1600
C. 1200
D. 600
Verse 114: The meaning of meiosis is:
A. Formation of gametes with n chromosomes, which form the basis for fertilization.
B. Decrease in the number of chromosomes in the cell.
C. Creates many haploid cells for the body.
D. Helps the body create new generations.
Verse 115: Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. In eukaryotes, the amino acid that starts the polypeptide chain is methionine
B. The structural units of DNA are A, T, G, X.
C. The direction of displacement of the ribosome on the mRNA is 5/ → 3/
D. In prokaryotes, after transcription the mRNA molecule is cut off the intron
Verse 116: Many different triplets can code for the same amino acid, which property of the genetic code?
A. Popularity
B. Continuity
C. Degeneracy
D. Specificity
Verse 117: A gene has a length of 5100Å, has A = 20%, strand 2 of the gene has a number of nucleotides of type A = 345 Nucleotites. If strand 1 is the parent strand and the gene is transcribed 5 times, the number of uraxin(U)-type nucleotides provided by the intracellular environment for transcription is :
A. U=1380
B. U=1200
C. U=1275
D. U=1380
Verse 118: Modeling the coding process is the job of:
A. encoder circuit
B. tRNA
C. original code circuit
D. mRNA
Verse 119: A gene has 120 helices and 3,100 hydrogen bonds. This gene duplicates itself three times to form daughter genes. The number of each type of environment provided for the above process is:
A. A = T = 3500; G = X = 4900
B. A = T = 1500; G = X = 2100
C. A = T = 500; G = X = 700
D. A = T = 1000; G = X = 1400
Question 120: The molecule has a single-stranded structure and has 3 circular lobes, one lobe has a triad of enantiomers:
A. DNA
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. tRNA
……….
Please download the document file to see more exam questions for Semester 2 Biology 10

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#Bộ #đề #thi #học #kì #môn #Sinh #học #lớp #năm

Final exam questions for the 2nd grade 10 Biology in 2021 – 2022 Includes 3 test questions compiled in the form of multiple choice. Thereby helping students quickly familiarize themselves with the exam structure, review to achieve high results in the upcoming 10th grade 2nd semester exam.
Biology 10th Semester Exam Questions It is also a reference for teachers to give test questions to their students. Besides, you can refer to some exam questions such as: 2nd semester exam questions in Physics 10, matrix exam questions for 2nd semester 10th grade, 2nd semester exam questions in History 10.
Exam questions for the second semester of Biology 10 years 2021 – 2022

DEPARTMENT of Education and Training……..
HIGH SCHOOL ………..

Test day:
(The test has 4 pages, 40 multiple choice questions)

QUALITY SURVEY FOR SECOND TERM
SCHOOL YEAR 2021-2022
Subject: BIOLOGY 10
Exam time: 50 minutes.

Verse 81: Regulating gene activity is:
A. regulate the amount of gene product produced
B. regulation of DNA replication
C. regulate the activity of the translation process
D. regulation of cell division
Verse 82: Chemical 5BU (5-Bromuraxin) when penetrated into cells causes mutations to replace the AT pair into a GX pair. The replacement process in turn according to the diagram:
A. AT → T-5BU → X-5BU → GX
B. AT → X-5BU → G-5BU → GX
C. AT → G-5BU → X-5BU → GX
D. AT → A-5BU → G-5BU → GX
Verse 83: In the gene regulation mechanism of the Lac operon, which of the following events takes place only when there is no lactose in the environment?
A. A repressor protein that binds to the operator region prevents transcription of structural genes
B. Some lactose molecules bind to the repressor protein, changing its three-dimensional configuration
C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to conduct transcription
D. The mRNA molecules of the structural genes Z, Y, and A are translated to create enzymes that break down lactose.
Verse 84Types of point mutations include:
A. Loss of DNA
B. Losing or adding a few nucleotide pairs
C. Substitute a few nucleotide pairs
D. Loss or addition or replacement of a nucleotide pair
Question 85: Each daughter DNA after replication has one strand of the parent DNA, the other strand is formed from free nucleotides. This is the basis of the principle:
A. Sale of insurance
B. Supplementation and preservation
C. Supplement
D. NTBS, semi-insured
Verse 86: In what way are the monomers of a DNA molecule different from the monomers of RNA?
A. Baseline, Acid H3PO4 and Sugar
B. Baseline, Acid H3PO4
C. Basaltite, Sugar
D. Sugar, Acid H3PO4
Verse 87: Gen B has a length of 0.51µm and an A/G ratio = 3/7. The mutated gene B produces the b allele, which has the same size and has 4051 hydrogen bonds. When a cell with genotype Bb enters mitosis, in metaphase, the total number of nucleotides of each type in the B and b genes is:
A. G = X = 2010; A = T = 900
B. G = X = 4202; A = T = 1798
C. G = X = 2101; A = T = 999
D. G = X = 1798; A = T = 4202
Verse 88: Which of the following statements is not true?
A. There are 61 amino acid-coding triplets
B. The only eukaryotic opening trio is AUG
C. The genetic code is degenerate
D. The genetic code is universal
Verse 89: What is not true about genetic mutations:
A. Genetic mutations have the ability to pass on to the next generation
B. Genetic mutations are expressed as phenotypes when they arise
C. When a gene mutation has arisen, it will be reproduced through the self-replicating mechanism of DNA
D. Point mutations are gene mutations
Verse 90The structural features of RNA that are different from DNA are:
A. Has a single-circuit structure
B. There are hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides
C. Composed of many monomers
D. Macromolecule, having a polymolecular structure
Verse 91: The function of DNA is:
A. Provides energy for cell activities
B. Is a structural component of cell membranes
C. Storage, preservation and communication of genetic information
D. Directly to cytoplasm for protein synthesis
Verse 92: The nature of the DNA-RNA-protein relationship is:
A. Ribonucleotide sequence, sequence of nucleotides, sequence of amino acids
B. The sequence of nucleotides complements the sequence of ribonucleotides, the sequence of amino acids
C. Sequence of nucleotide pairs on DNA Sequence of ribonucleotides on mRNA Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
D. Sequence of codon triples sequence of base triplet sequence of amino acids
Verse 93: During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are joined together to form a continuous chain by a splicing enzyme:
A. DNA giraza
B. DNA polymerase
C. helicase
D. DNA ligase
Verse 94: What is mature mRNA?
A. mRNA has just been synthesized
B. mRNA has removed all the Intron . segments
C. RNA participates in the translation process
D. The mRNA molecule has grown to its full size
Question 95: A gene has a mass of 540000 units and has 2320 hydrogen bonds. The number of each type of nucleotide in the gene is equal to:
A. A = T = 520, G = X = 380
B. A = T = 380, G = X = 520
C. A = T = 540, G = X = 360
D. A = T = 360, G = X = 540
Verse 96: A mature sex cell of a species (2n = 46) undergoes normal meiosis. The number of chromosomes and the state of the chromosomes in prophase I are:
A. 46 double chromosomes
B. 92 double chromosomes
C. 46 single chromosomes
D. 92 single chromosomes
Verse 97The function of regulatory genes is:
A. always inhibits the protein synthesis control process of structural genes
B. generate signal to signal the end of structural gene’s protein synthesis control process
C. control the activity of structural genes through the products produced by the regulatory gene itself
D. stimulates the activity of controlling protein synthesis of structural genes
Verse 98: A T-type nucleotide is a monomer that makes up which of the following molecules?
A. Proteins
B. DNA
C. rRNA
D. mRNA
Verse 99: A structural gene with a length of 2550 A0 and 1950 H-linked. A mutation that does not change the gene length, the mutant gene has an A/G ratio of approximately 66.3%. What type of gene mutation?
A. Lost 1 pair of GX
B. Replace 1 pair of GX with 1 pair of AT
C. Add 1 pair of AT
D. Replace 1 pair of AT with 1 pair of GX
Question 100: In eukaryotes, which of the following does not occur in the nucleus of a cell?
A. Duplication of chromosomes
B. Synthesis of polypeptide chains
C. DNA replication
D. RNA synthesis
Verse 101: Give the following information:
(1) The transcribed mRNA is directly used as a template for protein synthesis
(2) When the ribosome comes into contact with the terminator on the mRNA, translation is complete
(3) Thanks to a specific enzyme, the starting amino acid is cut from the newly synthesized polypeptide chain
(4) The post-transcribed mRNA is removed introns, joining the esons together to form a mature mRNA
The correct transcription and translation information for both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is:
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (3) and (4)
Question 102: Translating the code is:
A. Protein synthesis
B. The process of chromosome duplication
C. DNA replication process
D. The process of synthesizing mRNA
Question 103The role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in DNA replication is:
A. Breaking the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA
B. Untwist the DNA molecule
C. Connect the Okazaki fragments together
D. Assemble NTBS free nucleotides with each template strand of DNA
Verse 104: Deficient microorganisms are:
A. Microorganisms can synthesize growth factors on their own
B. Microorganisms cannot synthesize growth factors on their own
C. Microorganism that inhibits the activity of other microorganisms
D. Harmful microorganisms
Question 105: In the intermittent culture medium, the growth rate of bacteria is fastest in which phase?
A. Equilibrium phase
B. Latent phase
C. Decline phase
D. Power phase
Verse 106: When talking about microorganisms, how many of the following statements are true?
1. Microorganisms are tiny organisms that can only be seen under a microscope
2. Most microorganisms are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, some are unicellular aggregates
3. Microorganisms include many different taxonomic groups
4. Microorganisms absorb and metabolize nutrients quickly, grow and reproduce very quickly, and are widely distributed
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Question 107: If a primitive male sex cell of an organism (with a diploid 2n set of chromosomes) mits x times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x. The cell medium that provides the number of chromosomes for the reproductive region is 2x.
(2x – 1).2n chromosomes
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 2x. 2n, each gamete has n . chromosomes
C. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x, the number of gametes produced is equal to the number of gametophyte cells
D. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2nx, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 2n chromosomes.
Verse 108: Virus particles usually have the following structural forms:
A. Double, block and mixed helix
B. Straight, bare and block
C. Straight, block and mixed
D. Twists, blocks and mixes
Question 109: Give the following observations:
1. Mitosis occurs in the zygote
2. Mitosis occurs in primitive sex cells
3. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells
4. Mitosis is a form of cell division in eukaryotes
5. Mitosis occurs in mature sex cells
6. Mitosis consists of 2 consecutive cell divisions
The correct statements about mitosis include:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 3, 4, 5, 6
Question 110: In Rice 2n = 24. A vegetative cell of rice mitosis 5 times consecutively. In meiosis 5, in all daughter cells there are:
A. 640 chromateite
B. 320 chromatite
C. 384 double chromosomes
D. 320 double chromosomes
Question 111: Measures to prevent HIV include:
A. Just live faithfully monogamous
B. Use of effective vaccines
C. Practicing healthy lifestyle, medical hygiene, eliminating social evils
D. Do not inject drugs
Verse 112: If a primordial male sex cell of a chicken (with diploid 2n = 78) mits normally 3 times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate. normal meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 8 cells, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 78 chromosomes.
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 16 gametes carrying X chromosomes and 16 gametes carrying Y chromosomes.
C. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 32 gametes carrying the X chromosome.
D. The number of gametophytes produced is 23.2n, each gamete has 39 . chromosomes
Verse 113: A gene in eukaryotes has 200 A-type nucleotides and 400 G-type nucleotides. The total number of hydrogen bonds in the gene is
A. 1400
B. 1600
C. 1200
D. 600
Verse 114: The meaning of meiosis is:
A. Formation of gametes with n chromosomes, which form the basis for fertilization.
B. Decrease in the number of chromosomes in the cell.
C. Creates many haploid cells for the body.
D. Helps the body create new generations.
Verse 115: Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. In eukaryotes, the amino acid that starts the polypeptide chain is methionine
B. The structural units of DNA are A, T, G, X.
C. The direction of displacement of the ribosome on the mRNA is 5/ → 3/
D. In prokaryotes, after transcription the mRNA molecule is cut off the intron
Verse 116: Many different triplets can code for the same amino acid, which property of the genetic code?
A. Popularity
B. Continuity
C. Degeneracy
D. Specificity
Verse 117: A gene has a length of 5100Å, has A = 20%, strand 2 of the gene has a number of nucleotides of type A = 345 Nucleotites. If strand 1 is the parent strand and the gene is transcribed 5 times, the number of uraxin(U)-type nucleotides provided by the intracellular environment for transcription is :
A. U=1380
B. U=1200
C. U=1275
D. U=1380
Verse 118: Modeling the coding process is the job of:
A. encoder circuit
B. tRNA
C. original code circuit
D. mRNA
Verse 119: A gene has 120 helices and 3,100 hydrogen bonds. This gene duplicates itself three times to form daughter genes. The number of each type of environment provided for the above process is:
A. A = T = 3500; G = X = 4900
B. A = T = 1500; G = X = 2100
C. A = T = 500; G = X = 700
D. A = T = 1000; G = X = 1400
Question 120: The molecule has a single-stranded structure and has 3 circular lobes, one lobe has a triad of enantiomers:
A. DNA
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. tRNA
……….
Please download the document file to see more exam questions for Semester 2 Biology 10

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Final exam questions for the 2nd grade 10 Biology in 2021 – 2022 Includes 3 test questions compiled in the form of multiple choice. Thereby helping students quickly familiarize themselves with the exam structure, review to achieve high results in the upcoming 10th grade 2nd semester exam.
Biology 10th Semester Exam Questions It is also a reference for teachers to give test questions to their students. Besides, you can refer to some exam questions such as: 2nd semester exam questions in Physics 10, matrix exam questions for 2nd semester 10th grade, 2nd semester exam questions in History 10.
Exam questions for the second semester of Biology 10 years 2021 – 2022

DEPARTMENT of Education and Training……..
HIGH SCHOOL ………..

Test day:
(The test has 4 pages, 40 multiple choice questions)

QUALITY SURVEY FOR SECOND TERM
SCHOOL YEAR 2021-2022
Subject: BIOLOGY 10
Exam time: 50 minutes.

Verse 81: Regulating gene activity is:
A. regulate the amount of gene product produced
B. regulation of DNA replication
C. regulate the activity of the translation process
D. regulation of cell division
Verse 82: Chemical 5BU (5-Bromuraxin) when penetrated into cells causes mutations to replace the AT pair into a GX pair. The replacement process in turn according to the diagram:
A. AT → T-5BU → X-5BU → GX
B. AT → X-5BU → G-5BU → GX
C. AT → G-5BU → X-5BU → GX
D. AT → A-5BU → G-5BU → GX
Verse 83: In the gene regulation mechanism of the Lac operon, which of the following events takes place only when there is no lactose in the environment?
A. A repressor protein that binds to the operator region prevents transcription of structural genes
B. Some lactose molecules bind to the repressor protein, changing its three-dimensional configuration
C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to conduct transcription
D. The mRNA molecules of the structural genes Z, Y, and A are translated to create enzymes that break down lactose.
Verse 84Types of point mutations include:
A. Loss of DNA
B. Losing or adding a few nucleotide pairs
C. Substitute a few nucleotide pairs
D. Loss or addition or replacement of a nucleotide pair
Question 85: Each daughter DNA after replication has one strand of the parent DNA, the other strand is formed from free nucleotides. This is the basis of the principle:
A. Sale of insurance
B. Supplementation and preservation
C. Supplement
D. NTBS, semi-insured
Verse 86: In what way are the monomers of a DNA molecule different from the monomers of RNA?
A. Baseline, Acid H3PO4 and Sugar
B. Baseline, Acid H3PO4
C. Basaltite, Sugar
D. Sugar, Acid H3PO4
Verse 87: Gen B has a length of 0.51µm and an A/G ratio = 3/7. The mutated gene B produces the b allele, which has the same size and has 4051 hydrogen bonds. When a cell with genotype Bb enters mitosis, in metaphase, the total number of nucleotides of each type in the B and b genes is:
A. G = X = 2010; A = T = 900
B. G = X = 4202; A = T = 1798
C. G = X = 2101; A = T = 999
D. G = X = 1798; A = T = 4202
Verse 88: Which of the following statements is not true?
A. There are 61 amino acid-coding triplets
B. The only eukaryotic opening trio is AUG
C. The genetic code is degenerate
D. The genetic code is universal
Verse 89: What is not true about genetic mutations:
A. Genetic mutations have the ability to pass on to the next generation
B. Genetic mutations are expressed as phenotypes when they arise
C. When a gene mutation has arisen, it will be reproduced through the self-replicating mechanism of DNA
D. Point mutations are gene mutations
Verse 90The structural features of RNA that are different from DNA are:
A. Has a single-circuit structure
B. There are hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides
C. Composed of many monomers
D. Macromolecule, having a polymolecular structure
Verse 91: The function of DNA is:
A. Provides energy for cell activities
B. Is a structural component of cell membranes
C. Storage, preservation and communication of genetic information
D. Directly to cytoplasm for protein synthesis
Verse 92: The nature of the DNA-RNA-protein relationship is:
A. Ribonucleotide sequence, sequence of nucleotides, sequence of amino acids
B. The sequence of nucleotides complements the sequence of ribonucleotides, the sequence of amino acids
C. Sequence of nucleotide pairs on DNA Sequence of ribonucleotides on mRNA Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
D. Sequence of codon triples sequence of base triplet sequence of amino acids
Verse 93: During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are joined together to form a continuous chain by a splicing enzyme:
A. DNA giraza
B. DNA polymerase
C. helicase
D. DNA ligase
Verse 94: What is mature mRNA?
A. mRNA has just been synthesized
B. mRNA has removed all the Intron . segments
C. RNA participates in the translation process
D. The mRNA molecule has grown to its full size
Question 95: A gene has a mass of 540000 units and has 2320 hydrogen bonds. The number of each type of nucleotide in the gene is equal to:
A. A = T = 520, G = X = 380
B. A = T = 380, G = X = 520
C. A = T = 540, G = X = 360
D. A = T = 360, G = X = 540
Verse 96: A mature sex cell of a species (2n = 46) undergoes normal meiosis. The number of chromosomes and the state of the chromosomes in prophase I are:
A. 46 double chromosomes
B. 92 double chromosomes
C. 46 single chromosomes
D. 92 single chromosomes
Verse 97The function of regulatory genes is:
A. always inhibits the protein synthesis control process of structural genes
B. generate signal to signal the end of structural gene’s protein synthesis control process
C. control the activity of structural genes through the products produced by the regulatory gene itself
D. stimulates the activity of controlling protein synthesis of structural genes
Verse 98: A T-type nucleotide is a monomer that makes up which of the following molecules?
A. Proteins
B. DNA
C. rRNA
D. mRNA
Verse 99: A structural gene with a length of 2550 A0 and 1950 H-linked. A mutation that does not change the gene length, the mutant gene has an A/G ratio of approximately 66.3%. What type of gene mutation?
A. Lost 1 pair of GX
B. Replace 1 pair of GX with 1 pair of AT
C. Add 1 pair of AT
D. Replace 1 pair of AT with 1 pair of GX
Question 100: In eukaryotes, which of the following does not occur in the nucleus of a cell?
A. Duplication of chromosomes
B. Synthesis of polypeptide chains
C. DNA replication
D. RNA synthesis
Verse 101: Give the following information:
(1) The transcribed mRNA is directly used as a template for protein synthesis
(2) When the ribosome comes into contact with the terminator on the mRNA, translation is complete
(3) Thanks to a specific enzyme, the starting amino acid is cut from the newly synthesized polypeptide chain
(4) The post-transcribed mRNA is removed introns, joining the esons together to form a mature mRNA
The correct transcription and translation information for both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is:
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (3) and (4)
Question 102: Translating the code is:
A. Protein synthesis
B. The process of chromosome duplication
C. DNA replication process
D. The process of synthesizing mRNA
Question 103The role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in DNA replication is:
A. Breaking the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA
B. Untwist the DNA molecule
C. Connect the Okazaki fragments together
D. Assemble NTBS free nucleotides with each template strand of DNA
Verse 104: Deficient microorganisms are:
A. Microorganisms can synthesize growth factors on their own
B. Microorganisms cannot synthesize growth factors on their own
C. Microorganism that inhibits the activity of other microorganisms
D. Harmful microorganisms
Question 105: In the intermittent culture medium, the growth rate of bacteria is fastest in which phase?
A. Equilibrium phase
B. Latent phase
C. Decline phase
D. Power phase
Verse 106: When talking about microorganisms, how many of the following statements are true?
1. Microorganisms are tiny organisms that can only be seen under a microscope
2. Most microorganisms are prokaryotes or eukaryotes, some are unicellular aggregates
3. Microorganisms include many different taxonomic groups
4. Microorganisms absorb and metabolize nutrients quickly, grow and reproduce very quickly, and are widely distributed
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Question 107: If a primitive male sex cell of an organism (with a diploid 2n set of chromosomes) mits x times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x. The cell medium that provides the number of chromosomes for the reproductive region is 2x.
(2x – 1).2n chromosomes
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 2x. 2n, each gamete has n . chromosomes
C. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2x, the number of gametes produced is equal to the number of gametophyte cells
D. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 2nx, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 2n chromosomes.
Verse 108: Virus particles usually have the following structural forms:
A. Double, block and mixed helix
B. Straight, bare and block
C. Straight, block and mixed
D. Twists, blocks and mixes
Question 109: Give the following observations:
1. Mitosis occurs in the zygote
2. Mitosis occurs in primitive sex cells
3. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells
4. Mitosis is a form of cell division in eukaryotes
5. Mitosis occurs in mature sex cells
6. Mitosis consists of 2 consecutive cell divisions
The correct statements about mitosis include:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 6
D. 3, 4, 5, 6
Question 110: In Rice 2n = 24. A vegetative cell of rice mitosis 5 times consecutively. In meiosis 5, in all daughter cells there are:
A. 640 chromateite
B. 320 chromatite
C. 384 double chromosomes
D. 320 double chromosomes
Question 111: Measures to prevent HIV include:
A. Just live faithfully monogamous
B. Use of effective vaccines
C. Practicing healthy lifestyle, medical hygiene, eliminating social evils
D. Do not inject drugs
Verse 112: If a primordial male sex cell of a chicken (with diploid 2n = 78) mits normally 3 times in the reproductive region to become gametocytes, the gametophyte cells participate. normal meiosis to produce gametes. The following conclusions correct:
A. The number of gametophyte cells produced is 8 cells, the environment provided for the reproductive region is 78 chromosomes.
B. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 16 gametes carrying X chromosomes and 16 gametes carrying Y chromosomes.
C. The number of gametophytes produced is 8 cells, the number of gametes produced is 32 gametes carrying the X chromosome.
D. The number of gametophytes produced is 23.2n, each gamete has 39 . chromosomes
Verse 113: A gene in eukaryotes has 200 A-type nucleotides and 400 G-type nucleotides. The total number of hydrogen bonds in the gene is
A. 1400
B. 1600
C. 1200
D. 600
Verse 114: The meaning of meiosis is:
A. Formation of gametes with n chromosomes, which form the basis for fertilization.
B. Decrease in the number of chromosomes in the cell.
C. Creates many haploid cells for the body.
D. Helps the body create new generations.
Verse 115: Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. In eukaryotes, the amino acid that starts the polypeptide chain is methionine
B. The structural units of DNA are A, T, G, X.
C. The direction of displacement of the ribosome on the mRNA is 5/ → 3/
D. In prokaryotes, after transcription the mRNA molecule is cut off the intron
Verse 116: Many different triplets can code for the same amino acid, which property of the genetic code?
A. Popularity
B. Continuity
C. Degeneracy
D. Specificity
Verse 117: A gene has a length of 5100Å, has A = 20%, strand 2 of the gene has a number of nucleotides of type A = 345 Nucleotites. If strand 1 is the parent strand and the gene is transcribed 5 times, the number of uraxin(U)-type nucleotides provided by the intracellular environment for transcription is :
A. U=1380
B. U=1200
C. U=1275
D. U=1380
Verse 118: Modeling the coding process is the job of:
A. encoder circuit
B. tRNA
C. original code circuit
D. mRNA
Verse 119: A gene has 120 helices and 3,100 hydrogen bonds. This gene duplicates itself three times to form daughter genes. The number of each type of environment provided for the above process is:
A. A = T = 3500; G = X = 4900
B. A = T = 1500; G = X = 2100
C. A = T = 500; G = X = 700
D. A = T = 1000; G = X = 1400
Question 120: The molecule has a single-stranded structure and has 3 circular lobes, one lobe has a triad of enantiomers:
A. DNA
B. rRNA
C. mRNA
D. tRNA
……….
Please download the document file to see more exam questions for Semester 2 Biology 10

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